Firstly, Id! Harry (is the ! necessary? I saw you using it I think) said that he had been communicating with the shadow for a few months.
Using and abusing memes amuses me. This one in particular comes from fanfiction websites.
So in attempting to directly answer your questions, the best I can do is that the Shadow was constrained from offering true corrupting power to Harry but "cheated" by building rapport with his concious mind as Shela before he conciously accepted power (Hellfire) from her. The pushing the envelope was only available to her because of his subconciously accepting the power (and his subconcious communicating with her in the time since), and she chose to pull that card dispite the consequences of "crossing the line" because she saw that he was undergoing some stressful situations that were likely to cause him to embrace the Hellfire she managed to offer his subconcious, and would thus give her lots of opportunities to offer him tantalizing power through the course of the events of DB.
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The thing is, the story goes through a lot of trouble to describe how there were lines and limits on what the shadow could do (Ref, the 2 dream sceens, 1 with Malcome, the other with the shadow and hot tub. Interesting the symbolism in that in the Malcolm dream Harry was cold and uncomfortable, and Malcolm allowed him to mix his own Coffee to warm up... compared to Harry waking up in a luxurious hot tub he had never experienced before.) Your Occam's Razor argument is not strong enough for me to just throw away all that world building effort.
I agree with you, by definition, Occam's Razor is never a strong argument. It's more of a gut check than anything, namely "Am I adding this complexity because it makes sense with the evidence available, or am I adding this complexity because it appeals to me in some way?"
Basically, I believe there's two questions; we agree on one, but disagree on the other:
1. Why did Lasciel's Shadow wait from the actions of Blood Rites (or whenever Id!Harry started talking to her, makes no difference) until the actions of Dead Beat before "cheating"?
- My answer: she was waiting for the time where cheating would give her the most advantage.
- Your answer: she was waiting for the time where cheating would give her the most advantage (or as you put it, "[...]she chose to pull that card dispite the consequences of "crossing the line" because she saw that he was undergoing some stressful situations[...]").
2. Why did Lasciel's Shadow not "cheat" from the moment Harry empowered the circle until the actions of Blood Rites (or whenever Id!Harry started talking to her, makes no difference)?
- My answer: she was waiting for the time where cheating would give her the most advantage.
- Your answer: empowering the circle somehow makes cheating impossible for her until Harry's actions in Blood Rites.
You gotta admit, it's a little out of left field. To use a word I used previously, it seems inconsistent (I know, there's no reason to believe Lasciel's Shadow would follow fair rules, but there you go).
To me, those two statements are completely contradictory... My conceptualization of DV magic is the altering of reality with your will. So in those terms Harry's empowering the circle was a willful alteration of Lasciel's ability to influence him. Thus it was a sucessful magical spell, not an empty gesture that did absolutely nothing.
I have Doylist issues with this assertion, rather than Watsonian ones. You make it sound like the only reason Harry managed to cut the Shadow off from his conscious mind was because he'd been trained in the art of focusing his will to alter reality (A.K.A. magic). I want the aesop to be "Harry resisted Lasciel's Shadow because he's a good man"; I don't want the fantastic aesop to be "Harry resisted Lasciel's Shadow because he can do magic". I believe this is what Ms. Duck means by saying we are underestimating Harry.
(From a Watsonian perspective, we know one can renounce a coin without magic, since Sanya did it. So, I guess I have Watsonian issues with it, too.)
The true hurdle she had to overcome was not external to Harry. It was Harry's own stuborness. The singing is no evidence otherwise since it wasn't Lasciel/Lasciel's shadow doing it. Rather the fact that the wispering was a constant preasure that required the singing to drown it out until the spell cut it off is evidence that the spell was an effective way of exercising this stuborness in a way that severly limited Lasciel's influence over him.
The difference between what you say and what Ms. Duck is saying is that you believe that Harry's stubbornness somehow makes some of Lasciel's Shadow's options no longer available by reason of being impossible, while she (and I) believe his stubbornnes makes some of her options no longer available by reason of being dumb/counterproductive instead.
(Apologies to Ms. Duck if I misunderstood her.)