The Dresden Files > DF Spoilers
Wizard Academy
Quantus:
--- Quote from: Anubissama on July 22, 2017, 08:43:11 AM ---Aren't the terms of his bargain with the Leansidhe void anyway?
Lea sold her claim over Harry to Mab, which Dresden renegotiated into the 3 favours in Summer Knight.
Of which Harry still owes one, I'm sure that will come into play should he ever weasel his way out of being the Winter Knight, but the wording of his deal with the Leansidhe no longer applies.
--- End quote ---
I think so, yes.
Rasins:
--- Quote from: Anubissama on July 22, 2017, 08:43:11 AM ---Aren't the terms of his bargain with the Leansidhe void anyway?
Lea sold her claim over Harry to Mab, which Dresden renegotiated into the 3 favours in Summer Knight.
Of which Harry still owes one, I'm sure that will come into play should he ever weasel his way out of being the Winter Knight, but the wording of his deal with the Leansidhe no longer applies.
--- End quote ---
This is true, but it doesn't free Harry from whatever the terms of the deal that was between Leah and Margaret.
Quantus:
--- Quote from: Rasins on July 25, 2017, 06:02:29 PM ---This is true, but it doesn't free Harry from whatever the terms of the deal that was between Leah and Margaret.
--- End quote ---
True, the Godmother thing is still in play, whatever that means (the relationship is annoyingly non-specific :P).
jonas:
--- Quote from: Quantus on July 21, 2017, 04:42:21 PM ---Not an issue, because the original terms of that deal have not been in place since SK :)
--- End quote ---
Decided to go back to this with our recent convo. How is it important if he gave up such things or if his fortune is part of any bargain if original bargain not in place? ??? it seems illogical to argue about something then turn around and say it's not applicable. I'm confuzzled by the logic here, explain?
Quantus:
--- Quote from: jonas on July 26, 2017, 02:51:42 PM ---Decided to go back to this with our recent convo. How is it important if he gave up such things or if his fortune is part of any bargain if original bargain not in place? ??? it seems illogical to argue about something then turn around and say it's not applicable. I'm confuzzled by the logic here, explain?
--- End quote ---
Ok, retracing our steps:
The tangent started on the assertion that Mort and Harry were different because Mort /expected/ to make money from his magic and was Failing, whereas Harry was different (I wasnt every entirely clear on why you thought so).
I asserted that Harry's historic lifestyle of barely scrapping by on a PI's income and living in a constantly derided hole in the ground was in large parts a result of the Bargain he made as a child, supported by the observation it only began to turn around after that bargain was out of play (ie after SK).
We debated the likelihood of that based on the different usages of "Fortune" with me in favor of the monetary wealth definition and you preferring the "Luck" side of it.
The you said that the recent monetary windfall in SG might change my mind on the Money Vs Luck definition of Fortune, but I said that isnt a useful datapoint because it happened long after the bargain restricting his ability to amass a "Fortune" had long since been circumvented.
Does that make sense? :)
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